Moynihan and Karman are truly at odds over the direction that deviance
has taken in modern american society, with the former describing the
drifting downward of standards for defining it while the latter
approvingly citing the upward movement of standards defining deviance.
They can't both be right, can they? If not, then what would it take to
settle a dispute which has had very serious implications for the level
of acceptable criminality in the U.S.? Oh, and where is Krauthammer in
all this controversy?
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